13–19% of the NCLEX-RN
Pharmacology NCLEX practice questions
Adverse effects and interactions, blood products, dosage calculation, expected actions, medication administration, parenteral and IV therapies, and pain management.
13–19%of scored items on the 2026 test plan
185Pharmacology questions in the Aegis bank
6free samples below
Question 1 Multiple choice hard
A client with new-onset A-fib is started on apixaban. Which client teaching is most important?
- A.Take with food only
- B.Report any signs of bleeding (gums, urine, stool, bruising)
- C.INR will be checked weekly
- D.Avoid all leafy green vegetables
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B · DOAC anticoagulation
Apixaban (Eliquis) is a DOAC — no routine INR monitoring needed and no dietary restrictions. Bleeding precautions are essential. Vitamin K restriction is for warfarin.
Question 2 Multiple choice hard
A client takes prednisone 40 mg daily for 3 months and now needs to discontinue. The nurse should:
- A.Stop abruptly
- B.Taper gradually to allow adrenal recovery
- C.Switch to IV
- D.Double the dose first
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B · Steroid tapering
Long-term steroids suppress HPA axis. Abrupt cessation → adrenal crisis. Always taper gradually. Stress doses needed for surgery/illness during taper.
Question 3 Multiple choice hard
A client takes spironolactone for heart failure. Which lab finding requires the nurse to notify the provider?
- A.Sodium 138
- B.Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
- C.Glucose 110
- D.Creatinine 1.0
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B · Spironolactone — hyperkalemia
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic — risk of hyperkalemia, especially with ACE inhibitors/ARBs. K+ > 5.0 needs attention; > 5.5 → consider dose change, > 6.0 → urgent.
Question 4 Multiple choice hard
A client has been receiving long-term opioid therapy and is being switched to a new opioid. The nurse should be aware of:
- A.Opioid switching has no risk
- B.Use opioid equianalgesic table; reduce calculated dose by 25-50% to account for incomplete cross-tolerance
- C.Give equivalent dose without adjustment
- D.Double the calculated dose
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B · Opioid rotation safety
Opioid rotation: equianalgesic table calculates equivalent dose; reduce 25-50% (incomplete cross-tolerance, individual variability). Closely monitor for sedation, RR.
Question 5 Select all that apply hard
A client with TB is starting RIPE therapy (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol). Which teaching points are correct? Select all that apply.
- A.Rifampin will turn body fluids orange
- B.Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent isoniazid neuropathy
- C.Discontinue medications when symptoms improve
- D.Avoid alcohol
- E.Get baseline and periodic vision testing for ethambutol
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A, B, D, E · TB pharmacology
Rifampin = orange fluids. INH causes peripheral neuropathy (B6 prevents). Alcohol increases hepatotoxicity. Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis. Therapy is 6+ months — never stop early.
Question 6 Select 3 hard
A 70-year-old client receiving IV vancomycin develops sudden upper body flushing, itching, and BP drop from 132/80 to 98/60 during the infusion. Which actions are appropriate? Select 3.
- A.Stop the infusion temporarily
- B.Administer diphenhydramine and slow the infusion rate when restarted
- C.Notify the provider
- D.Administer epinephrine immediately as for anaphylaxis
- E.Discontinue vancomycin permanently
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A, B, C · Vancomycin red man response
"Red man syndrome" = histamine release from rapid vancomycin infusion. Stop, antihistamine, slow rate when restarted, notify provider. NOT a true allergy. Anaphylaxis would require epinephrine.